The creation laws are not only for the Jew
(or Yisra’ĕl) but for ALL human kind.
Most people believe the law of the Shabbat are only for the JEWISH (or the Yisraelite people. Saying that the non-Jewish or non-Israel people are not required to follow this Shabbat appointed time, the 4th commandment law. The question here, is this True? If you happen to believe it true, I must explain to you why it isn't true. Not to judge you wrong but to allow the scripture tell you why it not true.
First of all, I must first explain to you as reader here to understand the name of Jew (or Jewish). Those who read the Bible but never deeply research to know the actual ancient language of Aramaic (NOT HEBREW) translated to our English word. Often do not realize the tribe of Judah was change to the name of Jew by the Hebrew modern language. With this understanding name of Judah, the correct tribe name is actually spell out “YahuDah” from Aramaic to English translated. The same for the name of Israel is not the correct translated word, Yisra’ĕl seem to be more correct name in our language from Aramaic. Now, with this understanding correct name of the tribe of YahuDah, they are not the Yisra’ĕlite people who were once were. Meaning, the Israel people are not the Judah people but the Judah were once the Yisra’ĕl people. However, YahuDah as Judah are more likely the true Yisra’ĕlite people (Alaha's acceptable people) than those who were in the kingdom of Yisra’ĕl.
According to the Bible, after the death of King Solomon, the kingdom of Yisra’ĕl was divided into two kingdom. The southern kingdom were the tribes of YahuDah (and Benjamin), with Jerusalem as their capital. The northern kingdom remain as the tribes of Yisra’ĕl. Because King of Yisra’ĕl (Solomon's son Rehoboam who took over the throne) turned against Alaha (God). He was not anoint to be the next king. While Solomon was still alive and Jeroboam was working for him, a prophet named Ahijah told Jeroboam that Alaha (God) will take ten of the twelve tribes of Israel away from Solomon’s son Rehoboam and give them to him (Jeroboam) (1 Kings 11:29–31). The judgment reason against Solomon’s house was because they had forsaken Alaha and were worshiping such idols (verse 33).
Along with the announcement that Jeroboam would be the next king, because Alaha had anointed him to be king. A conditional of promise: “If you do whatever I command you and walk in obedience to me and do what is right in my eyes by obeying my decrees and commands, as David my servant did, I will be with you. I will build you a dynasty as enduring as the one I built for David and will give Israel to you” (verse 38). When Solomon discovered that Alaha had chosen Jeroboam to rule after him, the king tried to kill Jeroboam, who fled to Egypt (verse 40). Number of people who had a disagreement one another because they knew who is to be the next king. Most of the people want Solomon's son Rehoboam to be the next king, had remain in the kingdom of Yisra’ĕl while the other who disagree left the kingdom. This how the Yisra’ĕl was divided into two kingdoms.
Now that you may know what does the name of Israel mean, are Alaha acceptable people who follow and obey him. This is why the tribe of YahuDah remain as the true branch Yisra’ĕlite people. FYI, the dividing tribe of Alaha's people is not the first time. There were many separate group of people who were once Alaha's people before the name of Yisra’ĕl came in existent. Those who had disobeyed Alaha became a dividing people. The same for how the Yisra’ĕl was divided. The two divided kingdom reunited return as one again according to Hosea 1:11, but later again, Yisra’ĕl had turn against Alaha again had divided themselves into many nation today.
The creation people on earth are Alaha people because HE created them, yet, HE would only accept the people who follow and obey HIM are the true fruitful people as Yisra’ĕl people. Those who name themselves into a tribe of their own nation who rebelled against Alaha will not be salvation to live eternally but to be destroy.
Now let talk a little about the word “Gentile” before we get back about the law. Many people, including those who deal with the Bible all the time often misunderstood what the word “Gentile” really means. Here is the stocking people often do not realized because they do not study deep enough to know where the word "Gentile" really come from. The word Gentile does NOT come from either the Hebrew or Greek language. The word "gentile" has come into the English language from the Latin language. The Latin word "gens, gentis" means: a family, a clan, a stock of people, a race, a tribe, a people, a nation. This is the root word from which our English word "Gentile" has been formed from.
Now it should be immediately apparent that "gens" has a considerable scope of meaning and of application. And the plural "gentes" refers to multiple races, tribes and nations. The plural Latin word "gentes" is most assuredly not restricted to any particular ethnic or racial group of people. It applies to people of all ethnic and all racial backgrounds. This also including to Yisra’ĕl as well. However, that is not how the English word "Gentile" is used in the so-called Church of God today, or in our English language translations, is it??? When they use the word gentiles as to means 'someone who is not a Yisra’ĕl (or Jew) or not of YAHUAH's people are actually making a racial distinction.
In the Old Testaments books, the Hebrew word translated as "Gentile" is "goy", the plural being "goyim". Let look at the two words "goy" and "goyim", to indicate whether we are dealing with the singular or with the plural of this word. In those cases where a statement applies to both the singular and the plural forms "goy/im". Here is a basic point we need to grasp here:
The Hebrew word "goy" only applies to a group of people. The word "goy" never describes a single individual. That’s the same as our word for "nation". The word "nation" can never refer to one single individual. In the same way that one person cannot possibly be "a nation", so likewise one person cannot possibly be a "goy"!
To apply the Hebrew word "goy" to one single individual is a gross misuse of the Hebrew word "goy"! The singular form "goy" always means more than one individual, just like the singular form words "nation" and "family" always mean more than one individual. And like the word "people" always means more than one person. One individual cannot possibly be "a family", and one individual cannot possibly be "a nation". And one individual cannot possibly be a "goy". In biblical times the word "goy" could not possibly have referred to one individual. So "goy" means "one nation" or "one tribe", and "goyim" means "nations" or "tribes". But "goy" could never refer to one person alone. You should be able to understand here so far.
The two words "nation" and "people" are the correct translation for this word "goy". Both of these words are emotionally neutral in the sense of not passing any judgment. The reader has no way of knowing whether the "nation" or the "people" being referred to by this word "goy/im" stand in a good or in a bad relationship towards Alaha in heaven. It is always the context in which these words "nation" or "people" are used that has to show us in what relationship these people stand with Alaha.
The English word "heathen", on the other hand, is a word that makes a judgment! People designated as "heathen" by definition do not live by the laws of the true God, and frequently there is also the implication that a "heathen" lacks culture and/or moral principles. Once again, the word "heathen" passes a moral judgment about the persons so described. And "heathen" is not a correct translation for "goy".
The English word "Gentile" likewise makes a judgment. People designated as "Gentiles" are deemed to be non-Israelites, with a certain amount of put-down being implied. Nobody in the churches of Alaha, no minister and no lay member, has ever at any time used the term "Gentile" to express deep respect and courtesy and politeness towards the people he referred to as "Gentiles". The word is NEVER intended to be an expression of respect or a compliment. The word "Gentile" makes a judgment in the same way that the word "heathen" makes a judgment. But that is not what our Almighty ONE really intended when Alaha Himself repeatedly used this word "goy" throughout the Old Testament. And so "Gentile" is also not a correct translation for "goy". The first time this word "goy/im" is ever used in the Bible is in Genesis chapter 10, where it is used six times in four different verses.
Here are these four verses:
By these were the isles of the Gentiles ("goyim") divided in their lands; every one after his tongue, after their families, in their nations ("goyim"). (Genesis 10:5)
These [are] the sons of Ham, after their families, after their tongues, in their countries, [and] in their nations ("goyim"). (Genesis 10:20)
These [are] the sons of Shem, after their families, after their tongues, in their lands, after their nations ("goyim). (Genesis 10:31)
These [are] the families of the sons of Noah, after their generations, in their nations ("goyim"): and by these were the nations ("goyim") divided in the earth after the flood. (Genesis 10:32) So in these four verses the KJV translators decided to translate "goyim" five times as "nations" and one time as "Gentiles". Who told them to render "goyim" as "Gentiles" in the first part of verse 5 and then render it as "nations" in the second part of the same verse, as well as in all four of the subsequent uses of "goyim" in that chapter?
Can we see that the translation "Gentiles" in the book of Genesis 10:5 is based on nothing more than the racial bias of the translators??? There was no justification whatsoever for the English word "Gentiles" in this verse. The translators themselves very arbitrarily decided to use the word "Gentiles" in this verse. That was their bias!
The fact that in two thirds of all occurrences in the Old Testament (374 out of 558) the translators correctly rendered the word "goy/im" as "nation/s" should make sufficiently clear that they correctly understood the meaning of this Hebrew word. We can add to this the 11 places where the word is also correctly translated as "people".
What would we have if we consistently translated "goyim" as "Gentiles"? What would that look like? It would look absurd!
Notice in Genesis 10:31 that all the descendants of Shem are "goyim". So are all of Shem’s descendants Gentiles? Of course not!
The next verse makes the same point about the descendants of Noah, that they are "goyim". So are all of Noah’s descendants to be referred to as Gentiles? Abraham was a descendant of Noah and of Shem. Therefore Abraham is assuredly included in the term "goyim". Once again, to claim that "goyim" means "Gentiles" is ridiculous.
In fact, the very next usage of "goy" is when Alaha was speaking to Abram in Genesis chapter 12.
And I will make of you a great nation ("goy"), and I will bless you, and make your name great; and you shall be a blessing: (Genesis 12:2)
So here YAH, Alaha Himself used the word "goy" to refer to Abram, saying that his descendants would be a great "goy". So according to Alaha’s statement right here all of Abraham’s descendants are a "goy", a nation. Would that mean that all of Abraham’s descendants are "Gentiles"? Or are we going to pick and choose which meanings we will apply to "goy/im" ... like all those biased translators did? Does it look like Alaha ever intended the word "goy" to be a pejorative word, you know, like "heathen" or like "Gentile"?
So far, you as reader by now should know that every time we read the Bible for Gentile/s should think in picture as NATION/S which include the Yisra’ĕl people.
Now, let get back to the law. If the Shabbat law (the 4th commandment) was made ONLY for YahuDah (or the JEW), can you explain to me about Adam, Abraham, or Isaac fitting this? Are they also Alaha's people? Are they like the Yisra’ĕl people as well? The same for the tribe of Judah who once were the true Yisra’ĕl people before they were separate? Since we know the name of Yisra’ĕl exists after the 2nd generation of Abraham.
The reason I asked these questions is because these people are Alaha's people who follow and obey HIS law since the beginning of creation. The reason I have been telling people that ALL commandment law are for all people on earth, NOT only the Yisra’ĕl people (or the Jew).
Here why, look at what the book of Mark in chapter 2, verse 27, this scripture point out that Shabbat are made for man, not only for the YahuDah or Yisra’ĕl nor Jewish etc...! IT SAID MAN! Meaning all mankind.
Now, let take a look back in the time of Genesis, our Almighty ONE sanctified this Shabbat law for mankind (chapter 2, verses 1-2). This Shabbat law had been kept guard and is a sign between HIM and HIS people forever according to Exodus 31:17 and Leviticus 16:31.
Remember the story about Abraham who significance had an agreement with Almighty ONE, between YAHUAH and HIS people in Genesis 26:4? This is what HE had promise Abraham that he will have many children as the number of stars? Did you know the Sabbath is actually a set of the memorial of creation of HIS world for HIS people? Did you also know YahuSha the MessiYah, is our Passover lamb is the ONE who sacrificed for us according to 1st Corinthians 5:7?
Did you know he is also the Master of the Shabbat for HIS creation people (ALL human races) according to Matthew 12:8?
Our heavenly Alaha said that HE gave us HIS teaching (Turah/Laws) and showed us the right-rulings, HIS WAY ‘which, if a man does, he shall live by them. As HE also gave to mankind HIS Shabbats to us, to be a sign between mankind and HIM, so that we know that HE is YAHUAH who sets them apart. But the house of Yisra’ĕl (which also mean the people) had rebelled against HIM. He knows that we did not walk in by HIS commandments / teaching (Turah/Laws). We have been rejecting HIS right-rulings teaching for many generations which became more of the lose or hidden true doctrine which the Satan had been doing this to blind us. Again, YahuSha is the Master of the Shabbat who created this law since the beginning. HE is the ONE who proclaimed this message in Matthew 12:8. It's is HIM who came down from heaven in a flash (as a man).
According to EZEKIEL 20:11-20 , it explain in a bold warning, that if we the people do not respect and follow HIS law which including the Shabbat appointed time, HE would pour out HIS wrath upon those who rebellious against HIM. Just as the far ancient day as well.
Remember what the Revelation book explained in chapter seven, about the seal of Alaha's servants who are identified on their foreheads etc...? This is the identifies of the signs of there agreement with YAHUAH, our Alaha. Opposed to those who have the mark of the beast as explained in Revelation chapter 13 are the unworthy people to earn the eternal life. Because they do NOT believe and rebell HIM. Those who are found worthy to earn the eternal life had join in the Yisra’ĕl people who follow and worship Alaha. They will earn the wonderful millennium (one thousand) years of Shabbat time with YAHUAH (this millennium explain in the Revelation book). Where there will be no more sin upon the eternal world life on the renewal earth.
With all this understanding so far, we should be able to understand how and why YAH created everything in the universe by HIS powerful commandment law. Everything was foundation by the law he commanded to created.